Police Sergeant Exam

Coercive Control: The Law on Controlling or Coercive Behaviour

Coercive control is a pattern of behaviour that one person uses to dominate another, such as isolating, monitoring, threatening or humiliating them. Under section 76 of the Serious Crime Act 2015, repeated or continuous controlling or coercive behaviour towards a partner, ex-partner or relative that has a serious effect on them is a crime with a maximum of five years' imprisonment.

Updated 2026-10-30 · 11 min read · Checked against official sources

Key fact: If you are in danger now, call 999. If you cannot speak on a mobile, press 55 when prompted and the call will be put through to the police. For free, confidential advice 24 hours a day, call the National Domestic Abuse Helpline on 0808 2000 247 (England). In Wales, call Live Fear Free on 0808 80 10 100. Men can also call the Men's Advice Line on 0808 801 0327. These numbers are listed on gov.uk's domestic abuse help page.

Coercive control is often described by survivors as living by rules that keep changing. One person decides what the other wears, who they see, how money is spent and when they can leave the house, and breaking a rule brings consequences. Each act on its own can look small. Together they take away a person's freedom.

This guide is written for two readers. If you are worried about your own relationship or someone else's, it explains what the law says and where to get help. If you are a police officer revising for the sergeants' exam, it covers the offence, points to prove, evidence and powers.

This guide is a revision aid, not legal advice; the exam follows the 2027 Blackstone's manuals. If you are affected, please speak to the police or a specialist service about your own situation.

What coercive control means

The law calls it "controlling or coercive behaviour". The two words describe different tactics:

  • Controlling behaviour makes a person dependent or subordinate: isolating them from support, exploiting their resources, depriving them of independence and regulating their everyday life.
  • Coercive behaviour is an act or pattern of assaults, threats, humiliation, intimidation or other abuse used to harm, punish or frighten.

The Domestic Abuse Act 2021 lists controlling or coercive behaviour as one of the forms of domestic abuse, alongside physical or sexual abuse, violent or threatening behaviour, economic abuse and psychological or emotional abuse (section 1). Economic abuse means behaviour that has a substantial adverse effect on the victim's ability to get, use or keep money or property, or to obtain goods or services.

Examples of coercive control

The Home Office statutory guidance framework and CPS guidance give many examples. They include:

  • isolating someone from friends and family, or stopping them working or studying;
  • monitoring their time, phone, messages, location or social media, including with spyware or trackers;
  • controlling money: taking wages or benefits, running up debt in their name, giving an allowance;
  • deciding what they wear, eat, when they sleep and where they go;
  • repeated put-downs, humiliation and degrading "rules";
  • threats to hurt them, their children or pets, or to reveal private information;
  • withholding medication, immigration documents or access to support services;
  • reproductive coercion, and using drugs or alcohol to create dependency;
  • physical intimidation, such as blocking doors, and damage to property.

The behaviour is often tailored to the victim. Apparently loving acts between incidents can be part of the pattern, not a break in it.

The section 76 Serious Crime Act 2015 offence in full

Section 76(1) of the Serious Crime Act 2015 says A commits an offence if:

"(a) A repeatedly or continuously engages in behaviour towards another person (B) that is controlling or coercive, (b) at the time of the behaviour, A and B are personally connected (see subsection (6)), (c) the behaviour has a serious effect on B, and (d) A knows or ought to know that the behaviour will have a serious effect on B."

Personally connected

Since 5 April 2023, section 76(6) says A and B are personally connected if any of these applies:

  1. they are, or have been, married to each other;
  2. they are, or have been, civil partners;
  3. they have agreed to marry (even if the agreement has ended);
  4. they have entered a civil partnership agreement (even if it has ended);
  5. they are, or have been, in an intimate personal relationship;
  6. they each have, or have had, a parental relationship to the same child;
  7. they are relatives.

CPS guidance says "intimate personal relationship" takes its ordinary meaning. It does not need a sexual relationship or living together.

What changed in 2023

Before 5 April 2023 From 5 April 2023
Current intimate partners Covered Covered
Former partners Only if living together Covered wherever they live
Family members Only if living together Covered wherever they live, using the Family Law Act 1996 definition of "relative"
Parents of the same child Not a separate category Covered

Section 68 of the Domestic Abuse Act 2021 made this change. The commencement regulations (SI 2023/406) say it applies only to behaviour on or after 5 April 2023, so earlier behaviour by an ex-partner who did not live with the victim cannot be charged under the new wording.

Serious effect, knowledge and the defence

  • Serious effect (s.76(4)): the behaviour causes B to fear, on at least two occasions, that violence will be used against B; or causes B serious alarm or distress which has a substantial adverse effect on B's usual day-to-day activities.
  • Ought to know (s.76(5)): what a reasonable person with the same information would know.
  • Children: there is no offence where A has responsibility for B under the Children and Young Persons Act 1933 and B is under 16 (s.76(3)). Child protection and child cruelty law deal with that situation instead.
  • Defence (s.76(8)–(10)): A believed they were acting in B's best interests and the behaviour was reasonable in all the circumstances. A only has to raise evidence of it; the prosecution must then disprove it. It is not available for behaviour that causes B to fear violence.

Exam tip: The defence of acting in B's best interests only works for the "serious alarm or distress" route. Once the behaviour causes fear of violence, it is unavailable.

Points to prove

Element What it means Evidence an officer gathers
Repeatedly or continuously A pattern, not a one-off; acts need not be of the same type Timeline of incidents, diaries, messages, previous reports
Controlling or coercive behaviour Tactics that create dependency, or threats, humiliation and intimidation Victim's account, witnesses, digital evidence, bank records
Personally connected One of the seven connections in s.76(6), at the time of the behaviour Marriage or civil partnership records, birth certificates, accounts of the relationship
Serious effect Fear of violence on two or more occasions, or serious alarm or distress with substantial adverse effect on daily life Victim statement on impact, changes to work, health, routines, friends; medical records
Knew or ought to know A reasonable person with A's information would know the effect Messages showing awareness, the obvious nature of threats, prior warnings
Date range Behaviour on or after 5 April 2023 if relying on the wider definition Precise dates for each incident

Coercive control sentence: mode of trial and maximum penalty

Offence Mode of trial Maximum
Controlling or coercive behaviour (s.76 SCA 2015) Either way 5 years
Strangulation or suffocation (s.75A SCA 2015) Either way 5 years
Stalking involving fear of violence or serious alarm or distress (s.4A PHA 1997) Either way 10 years (CPS guidance)
Putting people in fear of violence (s.4 PHA 1997) Either way 10 years (CPS guidance)
Common assault or battery (s.39 CJA 1988) Summary only 6 months

The Sentencing Council guideline gives an offence range from a community order to four years' custody. CPS guidance says other offences in the same case, such as sexual offences, assaults or strangulation, should usually be charged alongside coercive control, and offences carrying more than five years should almost always be charged. Where the facts amount to stalking or section 4 harassment, those offences may be preferred because of their higher maximum. Coercive control is also within the unduly lenient sentence scheme; CPS guidance gives R v Dalgarno [2020] and R v Kingswell [2022] as examples of sentences referred to the Court of Appeal.

Key fact: A common assault or battery that amounts to domestic abuse can be charged later than the usual six months. Section 39A of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 allows proceedings within six months of the victim's statement or recorded interview, up to two years after the offence.

Key definitions and evidence

Repeatedly or continuously

The offence is about the pattern and its cumulative effect, not any single act. CPS guidance stresses that conduct that looks harmless in isolation can be part of the pattern, and that a victim may not recognise or be ready to report it.

Evidence officers can gather

CPS guidance and the statutory framework suggest building the case around the suspect's behaviour, not only the victim's account. Useful evidence includes:

  1. phone records, texts, emails and social media, gathered without leaving the victim without a phone;
  2. bank statements showing financial control or coerced debt;
  3. 999 recordings, body-worn video and doorbell or home CCTV;
  4. photographs of injuries and damage to the home;
  5. medical records and records from support services;
  6. accounts from family, friends, neighbours and colleagues about changes in the victim's life;
  7. any diary kept by the victim, and evidence of trackers or spyware;
  8. previous incidents that were not charged at the time. CPS guidance says an earlier no-further-action decision on a single assault does not stop it forming part of a coercive control charge.

Prosecutors should consider from the start whether the case can proceed without the victim's evidence (an evidence-led prosecution).

Exam tip: Victims may appear to "consent" to the control or defend the suspect. CPS guidance says this can be a way of coping with abuse. Do not treat it as evidence against the offence.

Police powers and protective measures

  • Arrest: section 24 PACE, where a necessity reason applies. Protecting a child or other vulnerable person and allowing a prompt and effective investigation are common reasons. See section 24 PACE.
  • Entry: section 17(1)(b) PACE to arrest for an indictable offence (coercive control is triable either way), and section 17(1)(e) to save life or limb.
  • Interview: a full cautioned interview covering the whole pattern, not just the latest incident. See the police caution guide.
  • DVPN and DVPO: under sections 24 to 33 of the Crime and Security Act 2010, an officer of at least superintendent rank can issue a domestic violence protection notice to a person aged 18 or over where there are reasonable grounds to believe they have been violent, or threatened violence, towards an associated person. The application for a domestic violence protection order must be heard by magistrates within 48 hours of service, and a DVPO lasts 14 to 28 days. The notice requires violence or a threat of violence, so pure coercive control without either may not meet the test.
  • DAPN and DAPO: domestic abuse protection notices and orders under the Domestic Abuse Act 2021 cover all forms of domestic abuse, including coercive control. On 30 October 2026 they were in force only in specified pilot areas, and the Act repeals DVPNs and DVPOs once the new scheme is fully in force. Check which scheme your force uses and what your 2027 manual covers.
  • Clare's Law: the Domestic Violence Disclosure Scheme gives a "right to ask" about a partner's history and a "right to know" where police decide to disclose. Since 5 April 2023 the guidance has been statutory under section 77 of the Domestic Abuse Act 2021.

Worked exam scenarios

Scenario 1. TURNER and LEWIS were in a relationship for three years but never lived together. They split up in March 2024. Since then TURNER has tracked LEWIS's car, messaged her friends to say she is unstable and turned up at her work. LEWIS has changed jobs and stopped going out. Can TURNER be charged under section 76?

Yes, potentially. TURNER and LEWIS have been in an intimate personal relationship, so they are personally connected even though they never lived together, and all the behaviour is after 5 April 2023. The serious alarm or distress has had a substantial adverse effect on her day-to-day activities. Stalking under section 4A of the Protection from Harassment Act 1997 should also be considered.

Scenario 2. EDWARDS, aged 40, lives apart from his 70-year-old mother. For a year he has controlled her bank account, stopped her seeing friends and told her she will be "put in a home" if she complains. She is frightened and has stopped leaving the house. Is this coercive control?

Yes, potentially. They are relatives, so they are personally connected. The pattern is controlling (financial control, isolation) and coercive (threats). Its effect on her daily life is substantial. EDWARDS cannot rely on "best interests" unless the behaviour was also reasonable, and the prosecution can disprove that.

Scenario 3. A father strictly controls his 15-year-old daughter's phone and friendships, and she becomes withdrawn. Is section 76 the right offence?

No. Section 76(3) excludes behaviour by a person who has responsibility for a child under 16. Officers should consider child protection measures and child cruelty offences instead.

Common exam traps

  • No living together requirement for behaviour from 5 April 2023, but it still applies to earlier behaviour between ex-partners or family members.
  • Two occasions: the fear-of-violence route needs fear on at least two occasions.
  • Substantial adverse effect must be on the victim's usual day-to-day activities, not just upset.
  • Best interests defence is not available where the victim feared violence.
  • Under 16: no offence where the suspect has responsibility for a child under 16.
  • "Ought to know" is objective: a reasonable person with the same information.
  • DVPN needs a superintendent and violence or a threat of violence; magistrates must hear the DVPO application within 48 hours.

Test yourself

Checked against legislation.gov.uk on 30 October 2026, with the CPS controlling or coercive behaviour guidance, the Home Office statutory guidance and the Sentencing Council guideline.

  1. Take the free harassment and communications topic quiz, which includes domestic abuse questions.
  2. Sit the free diagnostic to see where general police duties sit against crime and evidence.
  3. Then sit mock 1 in one timed sitting, and read the sergeants' exam guide to plan the rest of your revision.

If anything in this guide has raised concerns about your own situation, the National Domestic Abuse Helpline is free and open 24 hours a day on 0808 2000 247. In an emergency, always call 999.

10 free Sergeants' exam practice questions with answers

Try each one, then open the answer. For a timed experience use the free mock exam.

  1. 1. What are the prescribed alcohol limits for the purposes of ss.3A to 10 of the Road Traffic Act 1988, as they apply in England and Wales?

    1. A. 35 microgrammes per 100 ml of breath, 80 milligrammes per 100 ml of blood, and 107 milligrammes per 100 ml of urine.
    2. B. 50 microgrammes per 100 ml of breath, 100 milligrammes per 100 ml of blood, and 107 milligrammes per 100 ml of urine.
    3. C. 35 microgrammes per 100 ml of breath, 107 milligrammes per 100 ml of blood, and 80 milligrammes per 100 ml of urine.
    4. D. 22 microgrammes per 100 ml of breath, 50 milligrammes per 100 ml of blood, and 67 milligrammes per 100 ml of urine.
    Show answer

    A. 35 microgrammes per 100 ml of breath, 80 milligrammes per 100 ml of blood, and 107 milligrammes per 100 ml of urine.

    Section 11(2) defines 'the prescribed limit' as 35 microgrammes of alcohol in 100 millilitres of breath, 80 milligrammes in 100 millilitres of blood, or 107 milligrammes in 100 millilitres of urine. Regulations may prescribe other proportions, and lower limits apply in Scotland.

    Source: Road Traffic Act 1988, s.11(2)

  2. 2. WOOD is prosecuted for speeding. The only evidence is from a single police officer, who estimated by eye that WOOD was travelling at about 50 mph in a 30 mph zone. Which is correct?

    1. A. WOOD cannot be convicted solely on one witness's opinion evidence of his speed.
    2. B. WOOD can be convicted, because two officers' opinions are required only on motorways.
    3. C. WOOD can be convicted, because police officers are trained and experienced in estimating vehicle speeds.
    4. D. WOOD can be convicted if the officer gives his evidence on oath and is not shaken in cross-examination.
    Show answer

    A. WOOD cannot be convicted solely on one witness's opinion evidence of his speed.

    Section 89(2) of the Road Traffic Regulation Act 1984 provides that a person shall not be convicted of speeding solely on the evidence of one witness to the effect that, in that witness's opinion, the person was driving at a speed exceeding the limit. Corroboration is needed, for example a second witness or a speed-measuring device.

    Source: Road Traffic Regulation Act 1984, s.89(2)

  3. 3. Which of the following is correct regarding the offences of encouraging or assisting crime under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007?

    1. A. The offence applies only where the anticipated offence is triable on indictment
    2. B. The offence is committed only if the anticipated offence is at least attempted by the person encouraged
    3. C. It can be committed whether or not the offence encouraged or assisted is ever committed
    4. D. The offence is committed only if the person encouraged is aware of the encouragement
    Show answer

    C. It can be committed whether or not the offence encouraged or assisted is ever committed

    Section 49(1) SCA 2007 provides that a person may commit an offence under Part 2 whether or not any offence capable of being encouraged or assisted by his act is committed. The Part 2 offences are inchoate. Liability depends on D's act and state of mind, not on the outcome.

    Source: Serious Crime Act 2007, s.49(1)

  4. 4. IRWIN takes a pedal cycle from outside a library without the owner's consent and rides it home, intending to return it the next day. Which of the following is correct?

    1. A. IRWIN commits the s.12(1) offence of taking a conveyance without authority
    2. B. IRWIN commits the separate summary offence under s.12(5) relating to pedal cycles
    3. C. IRWIN commits theft, because a pedal cycle is not a conveyance
    4. D. IRWIN commits no offence because he intended to return the cycle
    Show answer

    B. IRWIN commits the separate summary offence under s.12(5) relating to pedal cycles

    Section 12(5) of the Theft Act 1968 provides that s.12(1) does not apply to pedal cycles. Instead it creates a separate summary offence of taking a pedal cycle without consent or lawful authority for one's own or another's use, or riding one knowing it has been so taken, punishable by a fine not exceeding level 3. An intention to return the cycle does not matter for this offence, but it does mean there is no theft.

    Source: Theft Act 1968, s.12(5)

  5. 5. DAVIES buys tablets believing them to be amphetamine (Class B). Analysis shows they are MDMA (Class A). He accepts he knew the tablets were a controlled drug of some kind. Which is correct?

    1. A. DAVIES can be convicted of possessing a Class A drug; not knowing which controlled drug it was is no defence.
    2. B. DAVIES can be convicted only of possessing a Class B drug, as the class he believed he had determines the offence.
    3. C. DAVIES should be charged with attempting to possess amphetamine, as that was the drug he intended to buy.
    4. D. DAVIES has a complete defence under s.28, because he did not know or suspect that the tablets were MDMA.
    Show answer

    A. DAVIES can be convicted of possessing a Class A drug; not knowing which controlled drug it was is no defence.

    Section 28(3)(a) states that the accused is not to be acquitted merely because he did not know or suspect that the substance was the particular controlled drug alleged. As DAVIES knew it was a controlled drug and believed it was one he could not lawfully possess, s.28(3)(b) does not help him. He is charged with possessing the drug he actually had.

    Source: Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, s.28(3)

  6. 6. XU agrees with two others to attack a man and gives them a baseball bat. As they approach the man, XU says quietly 'I'm off' and walks away. The others carry on and seriously injure the man with the bat. Which of the following is correct?

    1. A. Withdrawal can never be a defence once a person has given any assistance
    2. B. XU has a complete defence, because he left before any blow was struck
    3. C. Whether XU effectively withdrew is a question of fact and degree for the jury
    4. D. XU is liable only if he was physically present when the injuries were inflicted
    Show answer

    C. Whether XU effectively withdrew is a question of fact and degree for the jury

    A secondary party is not liable if he withdraws from the joint venture before the offence is committed. Whether he has withdrawn is a question of fact and degree for the jury. Relevant factors include the nature of the assistance given (here, supplying the weapon), how imminent the attack was, and how the withdrawal was communicated (R v O'Flaherty [2004]). A quiet remark as the attack is about to start may not be enough.

    Source: CPS Secondary liability guidance (withdrawal)

  7. 7. Neighbours report constant drug-related visitors, noise and fights at a house. Who may issue a closure notice under s.76 of the Anti-social Behaviour, Crime and Policing Act 2014?

    1. A. A police officer of inspector rank or above, or the local authority.
    2. B. Only a police officer of at least the rank of chief inspector, or the chief executive of the local authority.
    3. C. Only a magistrates' court, on a complaint made by a constable and supported by evidence of nuisance.
    4. D. Any police sergeant, if the premises are residential and the local authority has been consulted.
    Show answer

    A. A police officer of inspector rank or above, or the local authority.

    Section 76(1) allows a closure notice to be issued by a police officer of at least the rank of inspector, the local authority or, since 26 October 2026 (Crime and Policing Act 2026), a registered social housing provider, which may act only for premises it owns or manages (s.76(1A)). The issuer must be satisfied on reasonable grounds that use of the premises has resulted, or is likely soon to result, in nuisance to the public, or in disorder near the premises associated with their use. The notice must be necessary to prevent this.

    Source: Anti-social Behaviour, Crime and Policing Act 2014, s.76

  8. 8. HARRIS, a bar worker, sells a pint of lager to a customer who is 17. HARRIS says he thought the customer looked about 20, but he did not ask for identification. Which is correct regarding s.146 of the Licensing Act 2003?

    1. A. HARRIS has a complete defence, because he genuinely and honestly believed the customer was about 20, even though he did not ask for proof of age.
    2. B. HARRIS commits no offence, because lager is beer and the s.146 offence applies only to wines and spirits.
    3. C. He has a defence only if he believed the buyer was 18+ and took all reasonable steps, or nobody could reasonably have suspected otherwise.
    4. D. HARRIS commits no offence, because only the premises licence holder or the designated premises supervisor can commit it.
    Show answer

    C. He has a defence only if he believed the buyer was 18+ and took all reasonable steps, or nobody could reasonably have suspected otherwise.

    Section 146(1) makes it an offence to sell alcohol to an individual aged under 18. Under s.146(4), the seller has a defence if he believed the individual was 18 or over and either took all reasonable steps to establish age, or nobody could reasonably have suspected from the individual's appearance that they were under 18. Reasonable steps means asking for evidence of age that would convince a reasonable person (s.146(5)).

    Source: Licensing Act 2003, s.146

  9. 9. Which of the following is correct regarding the offence of strangulation under s.75A(1)(a) Serious Crime Act 2015?

    1. A. It requires an intentional act of strangulation, but no injury of any kind need be proved
    2. B. It may be committed recklessly, in the same way as a battery or common assault
    3. C. It requires proof that the victim's breathing or blood circulation was impeded
    4. D. It requires proof that the victim suffered at least actual bodily harm
    Show answer

    A. It requires an intentional act of strangulation, but no injury of any kind need be proved

    Section 75A(1)(a) is committed where A intentionally strangles B. The CPS guidance states that strangulation does not require any particular level of force, any injury, or proof of a consequence such as impeded breathing. It requires an intentional act and cannot be committed recklessly. Suffocation under s.75A(1)(b) is the limb that can be committed recklessly, through a battery.

    Source: Serious Crime Act 2015, s.75A; CPS Strangulation and suffocation guidance

  10. 10. What is the maximum penalty on indictment for aggravated vehicle-taking under s.12A of the Theft Act 1968?

    1. A. Five years, or life imprisonment if a death is caused
    2. B. Six months, as the offence is triable only summarily
    3. C. Two years, or 14 years where an accident caused a death
    4. D. Ten years, whatever the consequences of the driving
    Show answer

    C. Two years, or 14 years where an accident caused a death

    Section 12A(4) of the Theft Act 1968 sets a maximum of two years on indictment. Where it is proved that, in circumstances within s.12A(2)(b), the accident caused the death of the person concerned, the maximum rises to 14 years.

    Source: Theft Act 1968, s.12A(4)

Frequently asked questions

+What is coercive control?

Coercive control is a pattern of controlling or coercive behaviour used to dominate another person, for example by isolating them, controlling money, monitoring their phone or making threats. In England and Wales it is a criminal offence under section 76 of the Serious Crime Act 2015 when it happens within an intimate or family relationship and has a serious effect on the victim.

+Is coercive control a crime in the UK?

In England and Wales it has been a crime since 29 December 2015 under section 76 of the Serious Crime Act 2015. The offence is triable either way and carries a maximum of five years' imprisonment. Section 76 applies in England and Wales only; Scotland and Northern Ireland have separate laws.

+Do you have to live together for coercive control?

No, not since 5 April 2023. The Domestic Abuse Act 2021 removed the requirement for former partners and family members to live together. The offence now covers current and former partners, spouses and civil partners, people who share a child and relatives, wherever they live. The change only applies to behaviour on or after 5 April 2023.

+What is the sentence for coercive control?

The maximum is five years' imprisonment. The Sentencing Council guideline gives an offence range from a community order to four years' custody, depending on culpability and harm. Other offences in the same case, such as assaults or strangulation, are usually charged as well.

+What counts as a serious effect on the victim?

Section 76(4) gives two ways. Either the behaviour caused the victim to fear, on at least two occasions, that violence would be used against them, or it caused serious alarm or distress that had a substantial adverse effect on their usual day-to-day activities, such as stopping work, changing routes or withdrawing from friends.

+How do I report coercive control?

If you are in immediate danger, call 999. If you cannot speak on a mobile, press 55 when prompted so the call is put through to the police. Otherwise you can contact your local police force. For free, confidential advice 24 hours a day in England, call the National Domestic Abuse Helpline on 0808 2000 247.

+What is Clare's Law?

Clare's Law is the Domestic Violence Disclosure Scheme. It lets a person ask the police whether a partner has a history of abuse (the right to ask), and lets the police disclose information proactively where it may protect someone (the right to know). Police must follow the Home Office statutory guidance on the scheme.

+What is a DVPN and DVPO?

A domestic violence protection notice is an emergency notice a superintendent or above can issue to an adult who has been violent or threatened violence towards an associated person. A magistrates' court must hear the application for a domestic violence protection order within 48 hours, and a DVPO lasts between 14 and 28 days. Some force areas now pilot domestic abuse protection notices and orders instead.

Revision aid, not legal advice. The College of Policing exams follow the 2027 Blackstone's Police Manuals, so check every point against your manual and the current law on legislation.gov.uk. Police Sergeant Exam is independent and not affiliated with the College of Policing, the Home Office or Oxford University Press.

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