Inspectors' Exam 2027: Dates, Pass Mark, Format and Revision

15 free Inspectors' exam practice questions with answers

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1. 1. KHAN is charged with burglary. Which of the following would NOT be evidence of 'bad character' as defined by s.98 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003?

   1. A. Evidence that KHAN has a reputation in his area for handling stolen goods.
   2. B. Evidence that KHAN tried to bribe a witness in the investigation of this burglary.
   3. C. Evidence that KHAN was cautioned for possessing cannabis last year.
   4. D. Evidence that KHAN was convicted of theft from a shop four years ago.
   Show answer

   B. Evidence that KHAN tried to bribe a witness in the investigation of this burglary.

   Section 98 CJA 2003 defines bad character as evidence of, or a disposition towards, misconduct. It excludes evidence that has to do with the alleged facts of the offence charged, or (s.98(b)) evidence of misconduct in connection with the investigation or prosecution of that offence. Trying to bribe a witness in this investigation falls within s.98(b), so it is admissible without the bad character gateways.

   Source: Criminal Justice Act 2003, s.98

2. 2. HALL emails a small business pretending to be its regular supplier and asks for an invoice to be paid into a 'new' bank account that he controls. Staff become suspicious and pay nothing. Which of the following is correct?

   1. A. HALL commits fraud by false representation, even though nothing was paid
   2. B. HALL commits no offence, because nobody was deceived
   3. C. HALL commits fraud only if the business suffered a loss
   4. D. HALL commits attempted fraud only, because his representation did not succeed in obtaining any money
   Show answer

   A. HALL commits fraud by false representation, even though nothing was paid

   Fraud by false representation under ss.1 and 2 of the Fraud Act 2006 is committed when a person dishonestly makes a false representation intending, by making it, to make a gain or cause loss or risk of loss to another. It is a conduct offence: no gain or loss need result, and nobody need be deceived. HALL's offence was complete when he sent the email.

   Source: Fraud Act 2006, ss.1 and 2

3. 3. EDWARDS punches FRY, causing no injury, while shouting racial abuse about FRY's wife, who is of Pakistani origin. FRY himself is white British. Which is correct?

   1. A. The common assault may be racially aggravated, because 'membership' includes association with members of the group.
   2. B. The assault is racially aggravated only if FRY's wife was present and heard the abuse that was directed at her.
   3. C. The assault can only be treated as aggravated at sentence under the Sentencing Act 2020, not charged as such.
   4. D. The assault cannot be racially aggravated, because FRY is not himself a member of the racial group to which the abuse referred.
   Show answer

   A. The common assault may be racially aggravated, because 'membership' includes association with members of the group.

   Under s.28(1)(a) of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998, an offence is racially aggravated if the offender demonstrates towards the victim hostility based on the victim's membership (or presumed membership) of a racial group. Section 28(2) provides that 'membership' includes association with members of that group. FRY's marriage is such an association, so racially aggravated common assault under s.29(1)(c) is available.

   Source: Crime and Disorder Act 1998, ss.28-29

4. 4. In which of the following situations does s.170 of the Road Traffic Act 1988 (duty to stop and give information) apply?

   1. A. Owing to the presence of a car on a road, a pedestrian is injured.
   2. B. A driver crashes into a tree on private land that is neither a road nor a public place, injuring only himself.
   3. C. A car hits and kills a cat on a road, and there is no other damage.
   4. D. A driver damages only his own car by hitting a kerb.
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   A. Owing to the presence of a car on a road, a pedestrian is injured.

   Section 170(1) applies where, owing to the presence of a mechanically propelled vehicle on a road or other public place, an accident occurs causing personal injury to a person other than its driver. It also applies to damage to another vehicle, to a listed animal (horse, cattle, ass, mule, sheep, pig, goat or dog) not in or on the vehicle, or to property fixed to or forming part of the land on which the road or place is situated or adjacent land.

   Source: Road Traffic Act 1988, s.170

5. 5. BRIGGS knows that entry to a music festival is by paid ticket only. Intending not to pay, he climbs over the perimeter fence and watches the performances all weekend. Which offence is most appropriate?

   1. A. Fraud by false representation, under s.2
   2. B. Obtaining services dishonestly, under s.11
   3. C. Making off without payment, under s.3 of the Theft Act 1978
   4. D. Theft of the performances, under s.1 of the Theft Act 1968
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   B. Obtaining services dishonestly, under s.11

   Section 11 of the Fraud Act 2006 is committed where a person obtains services by a dishonest act, the services are made available on the basis that payment will be made, he obtains them without paying in full, and he knows they are, or might be, available only on payment but intends that payment will not be made. Climbing the fence is a dishonest act, BRIGGS knew entry was by paid ticket only and intended not to pay, and he obtained the festival performances. No representation is needed.

   Source: Fraud Act 2006, s.11

6. 6. An information is laid in writing before a justice alleging that YATES, aged 30, committed a summary offence that is not punishable with imprisonment. YATES has a settled address where a summons can be served. Which of the following is correct?

   1. A. The justice may not issue a warrant; a summons is the only option on these facts.
   2. B. The justice may issue a warrant because any offence may be dealt with by warrant if the prosecutor requests it.
   3. C. The justice may issue a warrant only if YATES has failed to attend court before.
   4. D. The justice may issue a warrant for YATES's arrest because the information is in writing.
   Show answer

   A. The justice may not issue a warrant; a summons is the only option on these facts.

   Under s.1(4) MCA 1980, a warrant cannot be issued for the arrest of a person aged 18 or over unless the offence is indictable or punishable with imprisonment, or the person's address is not sufficiently established for a summons to be served. Neither applies to YATES, so only a summons may be issued.

   Source: Magistrates' Courts Act 1980, s.1(4)

7. 7. LOCK punches a man in the eye. The blow ruptures blood vessels inside the eye, causing internal bleeding, but the skin is not broken anywhere. Which of the following is correct?

   1. A. The injury is a wound, because blood vessels have been ruptured
   2. B. The injury is not a wound, because there is no break in the continuity of the skin
   3. C. The injury is not a wound, because a wound can be caused only by a weapon or instrument
   4. D. The injury is a wound, because there has been internal bleeding
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   B. The injury is not a wound, because there is no break in the continuity of the skin

   Proof of wounding requires a break in the continuity of the skin (CPS guidance; JCC v Eisenhower [1984], where internal rupturing of blood vessels in the eye was held not to be a wound). Internal bleeding without a break in the skin is not a wound, although it may amount to ABH or GBH depending on its seriousness.

   Source: CPS Offences Against the Person charging standard (wounding)

8. 8. Which of the following describes the offence of common assault, as distinct from battery?

   1. A. Intentionally or recklessly making another apprehend immediate unlawful violence
   2. B. Intentionally or recklessly applying unlawful force to another person
   3. C. Intentionally causing another to fear that violence will be used against them at some future time
   4. D. Recklessly causing another person any injury that is more than transient or trifling
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   A. Intentionally or recklessly making another apprehend immediate unlawful violence

   Common assault is an act by which a person intentionally or recklessly causes another to suffer or apprehend immediate unlawful violence. Battery is the intentional or reckless application of unlawful force to another. They are separate offences, both placed on a statutory footing by s.39 CJA 1988.

   Source: Criminal Justice Act 1988, s.39; CPS Offences Against the Person charging standard

9. 9. Under s.5(3) of the Criminal Damage Act 1971, what is required of a belief relied on as a lawful excuse under s.5(2)?

   1. A. It must be both honestly held and objectively reasonable
   2. B. It must be supported by some independent evidence
   3. C. It must be honestly held, and it is immaterial whether it is justified
   4. D. It must be reasonable in the eyes of a sober and reasonable person
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   C. It must be honestly held, and it is immaterial whether it is justified

   Section 5(3) of the Criminal Damage Act 1971 provides that, for the purposes of s.5, it is immaterial whether a belief is justified or not if it is honestly held. The test is therefore subjective. The more unreasonable the belief, the less likely a court is to accept that it was genuinely held.

   Source: Criminal Damage Act 1971, s.5(3)

10. 10. What test does the prosecutor apply under s.3 of the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 when making initial disclosure?

    1. A. Disclose unused material only if the defence have identified it in a defence statement and asked for it in writing.
    2. B. Disclose all material obtained during the investigation, whether or not it is relevant, unless it is sensitive and the subject of a court order.
    3. C. Disclose only the material the prosecution intend to rely on at trial, together with the schedule of non-sensitive material.
    4. D. Disclose undisclosed prosecution material that might reasonably be considered capable of undermining the prosecution case or assisting the accused.
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    D. Disclose undisclosed prosecution material that might reasonably be considered capable of undermining the prosecution case or assisting the accused.

    Section 3(1) CPIA 1996 requires the prosecutor to disclose any prosecution material not previously disclosed that might reasonably be considered capable of undermining the case for the prosecution or of assisting the case for the accused. Where there is none, the prosecutor gives a written statement to that effect. Material is withheld if a court orders it on public interest grounds (s.3(6)).

    Source: Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996, s.3(1)

11. 11. VOSS, aged 19, has sexual intercourse with a girl aged 12. She tells him she wants to, and he genuinely and reasonably believes she is 16. Which of the following is correct?

    1. A. VOSS commits an offence under s.9 only, because she consented
    2. B. VOSS commits rape of a child under 13, contrary to s.5
    3. C. VOSS has a defence, because he reasonably believed she was 16
    4. D. VOSS commits no offence because she consented
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    B. VOSS commits rape of a child under 13, contrary to s.5

    Section 5 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 is committed where a person intentionally penetrates the vagina, anus or mouth of another person with his penis and the other person is under 13. Consent is not an element and there is no reasonable-belief-in-age provision. The offence carries life imprisonment.

    Source: Sexual Offences Act 2003, s.5

12. 12. PARKER, drinking with a friend in a pub, says: 'It was me who torched that car last night.' The friend later tells the police. Which of the following is correct about PARKER's remark under s.82 of PACE?

    1. A. It is a confession, as a statement wholly or partly adverse to its maker, to whomever made.
    2. B. It is not a confession, because PARKER had not been cautioned before he said it.
    3. C. It is not a confession, because it was not made to a police officer or other person in authority.
    4. D. It is a confession only if PARKER later repeats it in a recorded interview under caution.
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    A. It is a confession, as a statement wholly or partly adverse to its maker, to whomever made.

    Section 82(1) PACE defines 'confession' as any statement wholly or partly adverse to the person who made it, whether made to a person in authority or not, and whether in words or otherwise. PARKER's admission to a friend is a confession, and its admissibility is governed by s.76 (and s.78).

    Source: Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, s.82(1)

13. 13. PC TAYLOR has reasonable grounds to suspect that UPTON, who is walking through a park, is in possession of cocaine. UPTON has not been arrested. Which power allows PC TAYLOR to search UPTON?

    1. A. Section 23(2) Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, which lets him search UPTON and detain him for that purpose.
    2. B. None; UPTON must first be arrested and then searched under s.32 PACE for evidence of the offence.
    3. C. Section 23(2) Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, but only if an inspector has authorised the search.
    4. D. Section 23(3) Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, which requires a warrant from a justice of the peace.
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    A. Section 23(2) Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, which lets him search UPTON and detain him for that purpose.

    Where a constable has reasonable grounds to suspect a person is in possession of a controlled drug in contravention of the Act, s.23(2)(a) allows the constable to search that person and detain him for the purpose of searching him. No arrest or senior officer authority is needed. Section 23(3) concerns warrants to search premises.

    Source: Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, s.23(2)

14. 14. Which of the following is a complete defence to murder, rather than a partial defence reducing murder to manslaughter?

    1. A. Diminished responsibility
    2. B. Self-defence
    3. C. Loss of control
    4. D. Killing in pursuance of a suicide pact
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    B. Self-defence

    Self-defence, where the force used was reasonable in the circumstances as D believed them to be, is a complete defence to murder and manslaughter and leads to an acquittal. Loss of control, diminished responsibility and killing in pursuance of a suicide pact are partial defences. Each reduces murder to manslaughter.

    Source: CPS Homicide guidance (partial and complete defences)

15. 15. WINTER is on pre-charge bail with a condition not to contact a named witness. PC YORK has reasonable grounds for suspecting that WINTER has broken that condition. Which of the following is correct?

    1. A. PC YORK may arrest WINTER without warrant under s.46A PACE.
    2. B. WINTER may only be reported for summons, because breaching a bail condition is an offence.
    3. C. PC YORK must apply to a magistrates' court for a warrant to arrest WINTER for breaching the condition.
    4. D. PC YORK may arrest WINTER only if he has reasonable grounds for believing the condition has been broken.
    Show answer

    A. PC YORK may arrest WINTER without warrant under s.46A PACE.

    Section 46A(1A) PACE allows a constable to arrest without warrant a person released on bail under Part IV if he has reasonable grounds for suspecting that the person has broken any of the conditions of bail. Section 46A(1) separately allows arrest for failing to attend at the appointed time. The person must be taken to the police station appointed for surrender as soon as practicable (s.46A(2)).

    Source: Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, s.46A

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